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ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC SƯ PHẠM TPHCM MÔN TIẾNG ANH LISTENING PART 1: Question 1-8 Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen. 1 Which job has the girl decided to do? A. shop assistance B. teacher C. nurse D. customer 2 What will the boy order? A. burger B. pizza C. salad D. chips 3 Which activity does the girl not do anymore? A. table tennis B. volleyball C. having a guitar lesson D. having a math lesson 4 What does the boy want to buy tomorrow? A. new gloves B. a coat C. a scarf D. glasses 5 Which is the boy’s sister? A. She has long dark hair B. She has short hair and she also wears glasses C. She has long hair and she also wears glasses D. She has short dark hair and she also wears glasses 6 What sort of film will they see? A. romantic B. adventure C. detective D. comedy 7 Where does the girl want to go on holiday? A. mountain
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B. island C. big city D. museum 8 You will hear two friends talking about a new girl in their class. What is the boy’s opinion of her? A She’s the best student in the maths class. B She’s not polite with other children. C She’s pleasant to hang out with. D She is quite shy PART 2: Question 9-20 Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation 9. Why did Harry decide to start an adventure travel company? A. he wanted to share his experience with others. B. he thought he could make a lot of money. C. his father encouraged him to do it. D. he hoped to do more travelling himself. 10. Who suggested the name for Harry’s company? A. a friend B. a customer C. his wife D. his parents 11. What does Harry say about doing dangerous things? A. It’s part of his job. B. It’s frightening. C. He always thinks of how to avoid possible dangers. D. It’s enjoyable. 12. What is Harry’s favourite place? A. a mountain B. a building C. a river D. valley Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation 13. Why did Linda like her first boss? A. paid her well. B. was kind to her. C. sent her on a training course. D. made her become confident. 14. What did Linda enjoy about working in the shop? A. eating the cakes. B. the smell of baking. C. the clean workplace. D. friendly co-workers. 15. In the shop, what did Linda help with?
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A. baking bread. B. displaying cakes. C. making sandwiches. D. creating new bread recipes. 16. What does Linda say about the full-time shop assistants? A. were friendly to her. B. hadn’t got the same skills as her. C. helped her a lot with her work. D. didn’t work as hard as her. Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation 17. What does Lucy usually paint? A. scenery for stage plays B. pictures of pop stars C. the walls in people’s homes D. pictures on people’s homes 18. What does Lucy say about her present job? A. She enjoys working by herself. B. She chose it because she couldn’t get a job in advertising. C. She earns a good salary. D. It does not need any special skills. 19. What does Lucy find difficult about her work? A. She sometimes misses lunch. B. Some days are too busy. C. She always has too much work to do. D. She feel bored because she doesn’t have much to do. 20. How does Lucy get to work? A. by bus or train B. by car C. on foot D. by bike PART 3: Question 21 to 35 Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks, lectures or conversations. The talks, lectures, or conversations will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk, lecture, or conversation. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. Questions 21- 25 refer to the following conversation You will hear an interview with a young athlete called Miguel. 21 What are Parkour athletes expected to do? A use their body as well as equipment to move across an area. B use equipment efficiently to get from one point to another. C use only their body to move across a challenging area. 22 What do most athletes find hard to do, according to Miguel? A use every part of their body B control their fear
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C use equipment to jump from great heights 23 Miguel says that, in the UK, Parkour A has already been recognised as a sport. B has already been part of school sports. C is a well-paid sport to be involved in. 24 What does Miguel say about the video? A It was positive for the sport. B It had a negative effect. C It was prohibited. 25 In the future Miguel wants to A study sports at university. B deal with Parkour as a job. C stop school to practise Parkour. Questions 26- 30 refer to the following conversation You will hear a radio interview with the manager of a new shopping centre, Rob Stevens. 26 How long has the shopping centre been open? A less than six months B a little more than a year C about eight months 27 One advantage of the shopping centre is A it’s close to the city centre. B the free bus service. C you can access it by car, bus and underground. 28 What problem might drivers have in the city centre? A They can’t leave their car there for a long time. B Parking is very expensive. C Cars aren’t allowed in the city centre. 29 What is true about the play area? A Children must be with their parents at all times. B There will always be someone looking after the children. C There are doctors ready to help if needed. 30 What can you do in the gardens? A go fishing in the lake B play outdoor sports C row a boat Questions 31- 35 refer to the following conversation You are going to hear part of an interview with a woman called Yvonne, who is a yoga instructor. 31 What does Yvonne say about her first yoga sessions? A Within two weeks her bad back was cured. B She was surprised at how much she liked it. C Her friend had to persuade her to go. 32 When did Yvonne become a yoga instructor? A while she was teaching B after she had left her teaching job
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C after renting a room in a leisure centre 33 How has Yvonne’s health benefitted from doing yoga? A Her memory has improved. B Her stress levels have fallen. C Her blood pressure has improved. 34 What is Yvonne’s advice? A We should create a good work-life balance. B We should choose friends who have a positive outlook on life. C We should appreciate other people’s good qualities. 35 What does Yvonne say about healthy eating? A We should take our time when eating. B Local produce usually costs more. C We should avoid foods like biscuits and chocolate. READING QUESTIONS 1-10 William Sydney Porter (1862-1910), who wrote under the pseudonym of O. Henry, was born in North Carolina. His only formal education was to attend his Aunt Lina’s school until the age of fifteen, where he developed his lifelong love of books. By 1881 he was a licensed pharmacist. However, within a year, on the recommendation of a medical colleague of his Father’s, Porter moved to La Salle County in Texas for two years herding sheep. During this time, Webster’s Unabridged Dictionary was his constant companion, and Porter gained a knowledge of ranch life that he later incorporated into many of his short stories. He then moved to Austin for three years, and during this time the first recorded use of his pseudonym appeared, allegedly derived from his habit of calling “Oh, Henry” to a family cat. In 1887, Porter married Athol Estes. He worked as a draftsman, then as a bank teller for the First National Bank. In 1894 Porter founded his own humor weekly, the “Rolling Stone”, a venture that failed within a year, and later wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post. In the meantime, the First National Bank was examined, and the subsequent indictment of 1886 stated that Porter had embezzled funds. Porter then fled to New Orleans, and later to Honduras, leaving his wife and child in Austin. He returned in 1897 because of his wife’s continued ill-health, however she died six months later. Then, in 1898 Porter was found guilty and sentenced to five years imprisonment in Ohio. At the age of thirty five, he entered prison as a defeated man; he had lost his job, his home, his wife, and finally his freedom. He emerged from prison three years later, reborn as O. Henry, the pseudonym he now used to hide his true identity. He wrote at least twelve stories in jail, and after re-gaining his freedom, went to New York City, where he published more than 300 stories and gained fame as America’s favorite short Story writer. Porter married again in 1907, but after months of poor health, he died in New York City at the age of forty-eight in 1910. O.Henry’s stories have been translated all over the world. 1. Why did the author write the passage? (A) because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer (B) to outline the career of a famous American
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(C) because of his fame as America’s favorite short story writer (D) to outline the influences on O. Henry’s writing 2. According to the passage, Porter’s Father was (A) responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas (B) the person who gave him a life-long love of books (C) a medical doctor (D) a licensed pharmacist 3. The word “allegedly” in line 9 is closest in meaning to (A) supposedly (B) reportedly (C) wrongly (D) mistakenly 4. Which of the following is true, according to the passage? (A) both of Porter’s wives died before he died (B) Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist (C) Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called “Rolling Stone” (D) the first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin 5. The word “venture” in line 12 is closest in meaning to (A) challenging experiment (B) bold initiative (C) speculative action (D) sorry experience 6. The word “subsequent” in line 14 is closest in meaning to (A) resulting (B) police (C) alleged (D) official 7. Porter lost all of the following when he went to prison EXCEPT his (A) home (B) wife (C) job (D) books 8. According to the author, how many stories did Porter write while in prison for three years? (A) more than 300 (B) 35 (C) at least 12 (D) over 20 9. The author implies which of the following is true? (A) Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in prison for three years (B) Porter was in poor health throughout his life (C) O. Henry is as popular in many other countries as he is in America (D) Porter’s wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin when he fled. 10. Where in the passage does the author mention a habit of Porter that was to become very useful for him later? (A) lines 6-10 (B) lines 11-15 (C) lines 16-20 (D) lines 21-25 QUESTIONS 11-20 Alexis de Tocqueville, the French political scientist, historian, philosopher and politician, is most famous for a four-volume book he wrote called “Democracy in America”. He came to America in 1831 to study the American form of democracy and what it might mean to the rest of the world. After a visit of only nine months, he wrote a remarkable book which is regarded
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as a classic. De Tocqueville had unusual powers of observation. He described not only the democratic system of government and how it operated, but also its effect on how Americans think, feel, and act. Many scholars believe he had a deeper understanding of traditional American beliefs and values than anyone else who has written about the United States. What is so remarkable is that many of these traits which he observed nearly 200 years ago, are still visible and meaningful today. His observations are also important because the timing of his visit, the 1830s, was before America was industrialized. This was the era of the small farmer, the small businessman, and the settling of the western frontier. It was the period of history when the traditional values of the new country were newly established. In just a generation, some 40 years since the adoption of the U.S. Constitution, the new form of government had already produced a society of people with unique values. He was, however, a neutral observer and saw both the good and bad sides of these qualities. The first part of “Democracy in America” was written in 1831-32 and published in 1835. A highly positive and optimistic account of American government and society, the book was very well received. He attempted to get a glimpse of the essence of American society, all the while promoting his own philosophy: the equaling of the classes and the inevitable depth of aristocratic privilege. The rest of the book he labored on for four years, and in 1840 the second part was published. This was substantially more pessimistic than the first, warning of the dangers despotism and governmental centralization, and applying his ideas and criticisms more directly to France. As a result, it was not received as well as the first part, except in England where it was acclaimed highly. 11. What is the passage primarily about? (A) Alexis de Tocqueville (B) Democracy in America (C) the progress achieved in America within about 40 years after adoption of the U.S. Constitution (D) the impact of the book “Democracy in America” 12. All of the following fields of professional interest and activity are used to describe de Tocqueville EXCEPT (A) philosopher (B) author (C) political scientist (D) politician 13. The phrase “these traits” in lines 9-10 refers to (A) observations (B) how Americans think, feel, and act (C) traditional American beliefs and values (D) visible and meaningful observations 14. What in the passage is mentioned as being truly remarkable? (A) many of his observations are still visible and meaningful today (B) the book was so detailed and thorough after only such a comparatively short visit (C) that the second volume should be so pessimistic in comparison with the first (D) de Tocqueville’s powers of observation 15. The word “unique” in line 16 is closest in meaning to
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(A) clearly identifiable (B) outstanding (C) unmatched (D) positive 16. The word “neutral” in line 16 is closest in meaning to (A) impartial (B) careful (C) important (D) thorough 17. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? (A) the English don’t like the French (B) the book was most important because it was the first time that American values had been clearly documented (C) de Tocqueville was a slow writer (D) de Tocqueville was primarily motivated by an interest in his own country 18. The word “glimpse” in line 20 is closest in meaning to (A) overview (B) glance (C) brief understanding (D) quick conclusion 19. According to the passage, “Democracy in America” consisted of how many volumes? (A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four 20. Which of the following is true, according to the passage? (A) the visit lasted only five months (B) the visit coincided with American industrialization (C) the first part was published in 1835; the second part in 1840 (D) the second part was more optimistic than the first QUESTIONS 22-31 That large animals require a luxuriant vegetation, has been a general assumption which has passed from one work to another; but I do not hesitate to say that it is completely false, and that it has vitiated the reasoning of geologists on some points of great interest in the ancient history of the world. The prejudice has probably been derived from India, and the Indian islands, where troops of elephants, noble forests, and impenetrable jungles, are associated together in every one's mind. If, however, we refer to any work of travels through the southern parts of Africa, we shall find allusions in almost every page either to the desert character of the country, or to the numbers of large animals inhabiting it. The same thing is rendered evident by the many engravings which have been published of various parts of the interior. Dr. Andrew Smith, who has lately succeeded in passing the Tropic of Capricorn, informs me that, taking into consideration the whole of the southern part of Africa, there can be no doubt of its being a sterile country. On the southern coasts there are some fine forests,
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but with these exceptions, the traveller may pass for days together through open plains, covered by a poor and scanty vegetation. Now, if we look to the animals inhabiting these wide plains, we shall find their numbers extraordinarily great, and their bulk immense. We must enumerate the elephant, three species of rhinoceros, the hippopotamus, the giraffe, the bos caffer, two zebras, two gnus, and several antelopes even larger than these latter animals. It may be supposed that although the species are numerous, the individuals of each kind are few. By the kindness of Dr. Smith, I am enabled to show that the case is very different. He informs me, that in lat. 24', in one day's march with the bullock-wagons, he saw, without wandering to any great distance on either side, between one hundred and one hundred and fifty rhinoceroses - the same day he saw several herds of giraffes, amounting together to nearly a hundred. At the distance of a little more than one hour's march from their place of encampment on the previous night, his party actually killed at one spot eight hippopotamuses, and saw many more. In this same river there were likewise crocodiles. Of course it was a case quite extraordinary, to see so many great animals crowded together, but it evidently proves that they must exist in great numbers. Dr.Smith describes the country passed through that day, as 'being thinly covered with grass, and bushes about four feet high, and still more thinly with mimosa-trees.' Besides these large animals, every one the least acquainted with the natural history of the Cape, has read of the herds of antelopes, which can be compared only with the flocks of migratory birds. The numbers indeed of the lion, panther, and hyena, and the multitude of birds of prey, plainly speak of the abundance of the smaller quadrupeds: one evening seven lions were counted at the same time prowling round Dr. Smith's encampment. As this able naturalist remarked to me, the carnage each day in Southern Africa must indeed be terrific! I confess it is truly surprising how such a number of animals can find support in a country producing so little food. The larger quadrupeds no doubt roam over wide tracts in search of it; and their food chiefly consists of underwood, which probably contains much nutriment in a small bulk. Dr.Smith also informs me that the vegetation has a rapid growth; no sooner is a part consumed, than its place is supplied by a fresh stock. There can be no doubt, however, that our ideas respecting the apparent amount of food necessary for the support of large quadrupeds are much exaggerated. The belief that where large quadrupeds exist, the vegetation must necessarily be luxuriant, is the more remarkable, because the converse is far from true. Mr.Burchell observed to me that when entering Brazil, nothing struck him more forcibly than the splendour of the South American vegetation contrasted with that of South Africa, together with the absence of all large quadrupeds. In his Travels, he has suggested that the comparison of the respective weights (if there were sufficient data) of an equal number of the largest herbivorous quadrupeds of each country would be extremely curious. If we take on the one side, the elephants hippopotamus, giraffe, bos caffer, elan, five species of rhinoceros; and on the American side, two tapirs, the guanaco, three deer, the vicuna, peccari, capybara (after which we must choose from the monkeys to complete the number), and then place these two groups alongside each other it is not easy to conceive ranks more disproportionate in size. After the above facts, we are compelled to conclude, against anterior probability, that among the mammalia there exists no close relation between the bulk of the species, and the
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quantity of the vegetation, in the countries which they inhabit. 21. According to the author, the ‘prejudice’ has lead to ______. A. errors in the reasoning of biologists B. false ideas about animals in Africa C. doubt in the mind of the author D. incorrect assumptions on the part of geologists 22. The author uses information provided by Dr. Smith to ______. A. supply information on quality and quantity of plant life in South Africa B. indicate the presence of large numbers of animals C. give evidence of numbers of carnivorous animals D. A, B and C are correct 23. The flocks of migratory birds are mentioned to ______. A. describe an aspect of the fauna of South Africa B. indicate the abundance of wildlife C. contrast with the habits of the antelope D. suggest the size of antelope herds 24. The ‘carnage’ refers to the ______. A. number of animals killed by hunters B. number of prey animals killed by predators C. number of people killed by lions D. amount of food eaten by all species 25. To account for the ‘surprising’ number of animals in a ‘country producing so little food’, Darwin suggests all of the following as partial explanations except ______. A. food requirements have been overestimated B. rapid regrowth of plant material C. large area for animals to forage in D. mainly carnivorous animals 26. The author makes his point by reference to all of the following except ______. A. historical documents B. published illustrations C. private communications D. recorded observations 27. Darwin quotes Burchell’s observations in order to ______. A. describe a region of great splendor B. counter a popular misconception C. account for a curious situation D. illustrate a well-known phenomenon 28. Darwin apparently regards Dr. Smith as ______. A. reliable and imaginative B. observant and excitable C. intrepid and competent D. foolhardy and tiresome 29. Darwin’s parenthetical remark indicates that ______. A. Burchell’s data are not reliable B. comparison of the weights of herbivores is largely speculative C. Darwin’s views differ from Burchell’s D. more figures are needed before any comparison can be attempted 30. ‘Anterior probability’ refers to ______. A. what might have been expected B. ideas of earlier explorers C. likelihood based on data from India D. hypotheses of other scientists
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QUESTIONS 31-40 There has, in recent years, been an outpouring of information about the impact of buildings on the natural environment; Information which explains and promotes green and sustainable construction design, strives to convince others of its efficacy and warns of the dangers of ignoring the issue. Seldom do these documents offer any advice to practitioners, such as those designing mechanical and electrical systems for a building, on how to utilise this knowledge on a practical level. While the terms green and sustainable are often considered synonymous, in that they both symbolise nature, green does not encompass all that is meant by sustainability, which can be defined as minimizing the negative impacts of human activities on the natural environment, in particular those which have long-term and irreversible effects. Some elements of green design may be sustainable too, for example those which reduce energy usage and pollution, while others, such as ensuring internal air quality, may be considered green despite having no influence on the ecological balance. Although there are a good many advocates of ‘green’ construction in the architectural industry, able to cite ample reasons why buildings should be designed in a sustainable way, not to mention a plethora of architectural firms with experience in green design, this is not enough to make green construction come into being. The driving force behind whether a building is constructed with minimal environmental impact lies with the owner of the building; that is, the person financing the project. If the owner considers green design unimportant, or of secondary importance, then more than likely, it will not be factored into the design. The commissioning process plays a key role in ensuring the owner gets the building he wants, in terms of design, costs and risk. At the predesign stage, the owner’s objectives, criteria and the type of design envisaged are discussed and documented. This gives a design team a solid foundation on which they can build their ideas, and also provides a specific benchmark against which individual elements, such as costs, design and environmental impact can be judged. Owners who skip the commissioning process, or fail to take ‘green’ issues into account when doing so, often come a cropper once their building is up and running. Materials and equipment are installed as planned, and, at first glance, appear to fulfil their purpose adequately. However, in time, the owner realises that operational and maintenance costs are higher than necessary, and that the occupants are dissatisfied with the results. These factors in turn lead to higher ownership costs as well as increased environmental impact. In some cases, an owner may be aware of the latest trends in sustainable building design. He may have done research into it himself, or he may have been informed of the merits of green design through early discussion with professionals. However, firms should not take it as read that someone commissioning a building already has a preconceived idea of how green he intends the structure to be. Indeed, this initial interaction between owner and firm is the ideal time for a designer to outline and promote the ways that green design can meet the client’s objectives, thus turning a project originally not destined for green design into a potential candidate. Typically, when considering whether or not to adopt a green approach, an owner will ask about additional costs, return for investment and to what extent green design should be the limiting factor governing decisions in the design process. [A] Many of these costs are incurred by the increased cooperation between the various stakeholders, such as the owner, the design professionals, contractors and end-users. [B] However, in green design, they must be involved from the outset, since green design demands interaction between these disciplines. [C] This increased coordination clearly requires additional expenditure. [D] A client may initially balk at these added fees, and may require further convincing of the
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benefits if he is to proceed. It is up to the project team to gauge the extent to which a client wants to get involved in a green design project and provide a commensurate service. Of course, there may be financial advantage for the client in choosing a greener design. Case studies cite examples of green / sustainable designs which have demonstrated lower costs for long-term operation, ownership and even construction. Tax credits and rebates are usually available on a regional basis for projects with sustainable design or low emissions, among others. 31. The writer’s main purpose is to… A. explain to professionals how they can influence clients to choose greener designs. B. explain the importance of green building design in reducing long-term damage to the environment. C. explain to owners commissioning a building why ignoring green issues is costly and dangerous. D. explain to professionals why it is important to follow the correct procedures when a building is commissioned. 32. The examples of green and sustainable designs given in paragraph 2 show that A. designs must be sustainable in order for them to be described as green. B. for the purposes of this paper, the terms green and sustainable have the same meaning. C. some sustainable designs are green, while others are not. D. some designs are termed green, even though they are not sustainable. 33. According to paragraph 3, the reason for the lack of green buildings being designed is that… A. few firms have any experience in design and constructing buildings to a green design. B. construction companies are unaware of the benefits of green and sustainable designs. C. firms do not get to decide whether a building is to be constructed sustainably. D. firms tend to convince clients that other factors are more important than sustainability. 34. Which of the following is NOT true about the commissioning process? A. It is conducted before the building is designed. B. It is a stage that all clients go through when constructing a building. C. It is a step in the design procedure in which the client’s goals are identified. D. It provides the firm with a measure of how well they did their job. 35. In paragraph 5, what does the phrase ‘come a cropper’ mean? A. experience misfortune B. change one’s mind C. notice the benefits D. make a selection 36. In paragraph 6, the writer implies that… A. most clients enter the commissioning process with a clear idea of whether or not they want a green building. B. designers are usually less concerned about green design than the clients are. C. the commissioning process offers a perfect opportunity to bring up the subject of green design. D. firms should avoid working with clients who reject green designs in their buildings. 37. Where in paragraph 7 does this sentence belong? In a typical project, landscape architects and mechanical, electrical and plumbing engineers do not become involved until a much later stage. A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D] 38. In paragraph 7, what does ‘balk at’ mean? A. display shock towards B. agree to pay
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C. question the reason for D. understand the need for 39. Green buildings are most likely to incur more expense than conventional buildings due to… A. higher taxes incurred on sustainable buildings. B. higher long-term operational costs. C. the higher cost of green construction materials. D. increased coordination between construction teams. 40. Which of the following sentences best expresses the most important idea in the passage? A. Ensuring good internal air quality is one way of ensuring that occupants are satisfied with a building’s design. B. Architects are more interested in green building design than other contractors, such as engineers and plumbers. C. Although the initial costs for designing and constructing green buildings may dissuade clients from building them, there are financial incentives, particularly in the long term. D. Most clients are prepared to pay extra in order to receive the benefits of green building design WRITING Task 1: You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. You live in Ho Chi Minh City. You moved to Manchester to study English three months ago. You have just received an email from a friend of mine, Sara from London. Read part of her email below. …. What’s Manchester like? I bet the weather’s not too good! Have you still got that part-time job in the fast-food restaurant? It must be a good way of speaking to new people and making friends. What about the family you’re staying with? Do you go out much in the evening? I hope the English classes are going well. Sara ….. Write a reply to Sara. In your email, you have to describe Manchester and the weather there, tell her about your part-time job, the family you are staying with, and your activities in the evening, and finally you have to write about your English classes there. You should write at least 120 words. SAMPLE: Dear Sara, Thanks for your email! It was so nice to hear from you. Manchester is quite different from Ho Chi Minh City. The city is lively and modern, but the weather is exactly as you guessed—cold and rainy most of the time. I’m slowly getting used to carrying an umbrella everywhere I go. I still work part-time at the fast-food restaurant. It’s sometimes tiring, but it’s a great chance to practice English with customers and colleagues, so I really enjoy it. The family I’m staying with is lovely and very supportive. They often invite me to join their dinners, which makes me feel at home. In the evenings, I usually go out with some classmates to explore the city or watch a film.
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The English classes are going well, and I feel more confident in speaking and listening every week. Take care, and write soon! Best, [Your Name] Task 2: You should spend about 40 minutes on this task Read the following text from an article about the Internet. With the rapid advancement of technology, online shopping has become more convenient and accessible than ever before. As a result, many people are shifting away from traditional stores. In some countries, online shopping is replacing shopping in stores. Do you think it is a positive or negative development? Now, write an essay to educated reader. Include reasons and any revelant examples to support your answer. You should write at least 250 words. SAMPLE: With the rapid advancement of technology, online shopping has become an essential part of modern life. In many countries, it is gradually replacing traditional shopping in stores. While some people are concerned about its negative influence on society, I personally believe that this is a positive development overall. The first advantage of online shopping is convenience. Customers no longer need to spend hours traveling to shopping centers; instead, they can order products with a few clicks and receive them at their doorstep. This is especially beneficial for people with busy schedules or those living in remote areas. For example, during the pandemic, many families in Vietnam relied on online grocery services to ensure their daily needs were met without leaving home. Another positive aspect is the wider range of choices. Online platforms allow consumers to compare prices, read reviews, and access international brands that might not be available locally. This creates healthy competition among sellers, which often leads to better quality and lower prices. Small businesses also benefit from online platforms, as they can reach a larger audience without the cost of maintaining a physical shop. However, I acknowledge some drawbacks. Shopping online may reduce face-to-face social interaction and threaten the survival of traditional markets. Furthermore, issues such as delivery delays, product quality, and cyber fraud cannot be ignored. Yet, these problems can be addressed through stricter regulations, improved technology, and better customer protection policies. In conclusion, although online shopping brings certain challenges, its benefits in terms of convenience, variety, and economic opportunities outweigh the negatives. With appropriate management, the growth of online shopping should be seen as a positive trend that reflects progress in both technology and lifestyle. SPEAKING PART I: SOCIAL INTERACTION (3’) Let’s talk about your hometown.
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● ● Where is your hometown? ● What do you like most about your hometown? ● Do you think your hometown is a good tourist attraction? Why/ Why not? Let’s talk about weather. ● What kind of weather do you like most? ● Does the weather influence your moods? ● Do you think fighting global climate change is a government or individual responsibility? PART II: SOLUTION DISCUSSION (4’) Situation: Your friend who is a teacher complains that many her students do not do homework. She is considering the punishment among three options: ask the students to rewrite the task 10 times, require them to stand at the classroom corner for one hour, or ask the students give some money. Which do you think is the best choice? PART III: TOPIC DEVELOPMENT (5’) Topic: Exams should be abolished Then, answer these questions In your opinion, should exams be replaced by some practical forms of assessment like a project assignment? Do exams have positive or negative effects on your study?
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