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ĐỀ SỐ 1
TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN HUỆ
ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KỲ II
Môn: TIẾNG ANH 6
Thời gian: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
A. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS TEST (2.0 pts)
I. PHONETIC:
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from the others. (0.2 pt)
1. A. theatre B. think C. weather D. something
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
stress in each of the following questions (0.2 pt)
2. A. channel B. robot C. solar D. reduce
II. VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR/STRUCTURES:
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option to each of the following questions. (1.6 pts)
3. My brother usually plays football when he has ________.
A. spare time B. good time C. times D. a time
4. I think in the future, a/an ___________ will help you to wash dirty clothes and even iron them.
A. automatic dishwasher B. automatic washing machine
C. helicopter D. smart clock
5. My mother often cooks rice by an _____________ cooker.
A. electric B. electrical C. electrician D. electricity
6. I and Hoa __________ an interesting film on TV last night.
A. will watch B. watch C. watching D. watched
7. This is our house, and that is _________ .
A. they B. them C. theirs D. their
8. I hope that I _________ him again in the future.
A. meet B. met C. am meeting D. will meet
9. Neil Armstrong was the first man to walk on _______ Moon.
A. the B. a C. an D. all
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word
in the following sentence.
10. If you reduce waste paper and empty bottles, you will help the environment.
A. reduce B. plant C. protect D. wash
B. READING (2.0 pts)
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the option that best fits each
of numbered blanks from 11 to 15. (1 pt)
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My name is Hoa. There are five people in my family, but each of us has our own favourite (11)
__________ on TV. My father loves sports. He (12) __________ sports programmes every weekend. My
mother likes music programmes. Her favourite singer is My Tam. I like music, too. I sometimes watch
Hits of the Week with my mother. My brother, Nam, only watches the news. He says it's very (13)
__________. He doesn't like other programmes.
My sister, Lan, likes films. She watches almost all Korean films on TV. Her favourite film is
Winter Sonata. I (14) __________ watch romantic films. I think they are very boring. To me, detective
films are the best. They are exciting with a lot of action. I ever watch TV in the morning on weekdays
because I have to go to school. We enjoy different kinds of shows, (15) __________ TV always brings
our family together in the evening.
11. A. TV sets B. programmes C. channels D. volumes
12. A. watches B. listens C. plays D. makes
13. A. interesting B. interested C. boring D. bored
14. A. always B. often C. never D. usually
15. A. because B. but C. if D. so
II. Read the following passage and do the tasks below. (1 pt)
Linda’s future house will be a smart palace in the countryside. There will be a lot of lights
around it. Her palace will be so bright in the evening. It will have 10 rooms. It will also have many modern
appliances such as smart doors, smart TVs, super smartphones, smart clocks and smart fridges. She will use
her voice to control her home. She will tell her smart doors to open and close. She will tell her smart TVs to
turn on her favourite shows or tell her super smartphones to order goods from the supermarket. There will be
10 robots in her palace. She will ask them to cook her favourite meals, to iron her clothes, and to water her
plants and flowers.
Task 1: Decide each of followwing statement is True or False. (0,6 pt)
Statements True False
16. There won’t be any lights around Linda’s future house.
17. Her super smartphones will help her to order goods from the supermarket.
18. She will ask robots to water her plants and flowers.
Task 2: Write the short answers for questions 19 and 20. (0.4 pt)
19. According to the passage, how many robots will Linda have in her palace?
=> .………………………………….….……………… .
20. Will she use her voice to control her home?
=> .………………………………….….……………… .
C. WRITING (2.0 pts)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. (0,8 pt)
21. You shouldn’t play soccer here.
Don’t ………………………………………………..…………………………… .
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22. That is her new car.
That new …………………………………………………….…….………………. .
23. Save energy, and you will save some money.
If you …………………………………………………………..………….……… .
24. Perhaps they will go home early today.
They might ……………………………………………… ……………………… .
II. Rearrange the words given in each following sentence to make a meaningful sentence. (0,4 pt)
25. will/ If/ the/ ,/ we/ more/ help/ we/ recycle/ Earth/.
…………..……………………………………………………………………………… .
26. gets/ goes/ Lan/ to/ on/ school/ up/ ,/ so/ early/ she/ time/.
…………………………………..……………………………………………………… .
III. Write complete sentences from the words given. (0,8 pt)
27. Minh/ visit/ Thien Mu pagoda/ two/ day/ ago/.
………………………………………………………………………………….……… .
28. Our/ school/ be/ beautiful/ if/ we/ plant/ more/ flower/.
…………………………………………………………………………………………. .
D. LISTENING (2.0 pts)
I. Listen to the recording. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each of the following questions.
(1.0 pt)
29. What is this campaign about?
A. throwing rubbish B. planting trees C. recycling trash D. buying papers
30. What is the name of the campaign?
A. “The Earth Hour” B. “Green Summer”
C. “Keep America beautiful” D. “Go green”
31. What will people do in this campaign?
A. turn things like water bottles and aluminum cans into new and useful objects.
B. throw away used bottles and cans.
C. put a recycling bin.
D. exchange old clothes and old books.
32. What will we have if we recycle bottles and cans?
A. papers B. benches and pipes C. desks D. glasses
33. What is the number of people joining the campaign?
A. nobody B. less than 200 C. about 250 D. over one million
II. Listen to the recording and decide the following statements are True or False. (1.0 pt)
Statements True False
34. His house in the future will be on an island.
35. His neighborhood will be a noisy place.
36. His house will have three rooms.
37. There won’t be any green trees around his house.
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HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
A. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS TEST (2,0 pts – Each right answer gets 0,2 pt)
I.
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. C
B. READING (2,0 pts – Each right answer gets 0,2 pt)
I.
11. B 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. B
II.
16. F 17. T 18. T
19. There will be ten robots.
20. Yes, she will.
(Nếu HS chỉ viết đúng những cụm từ in đậm cũng đạt điểm tối đa cho mỗi câu)
C. WRITING (2,0 pts)
I. (Each right answer gets 0,2 pt)
21. Don’t play soccer here.
22. That new car is hers.
23. If you save energy, you will save some money.
24. They might go home early today.
II. (Each right answer gets 0,2 pt)
25. If we recycle more, we will help the Earth.
26. Lan gets up early, so she goes to school on time.
III. (Each right answer gets 0,4 pt)
27. Minh visited Thien Mu pagoda two days ago.
28. Our school will be (more) beautiful if we plant more flowers.
D. LISTENING (2,0 pts – Each right answer gets 0,2 pt
I.
29. C 30. C 31. A 32. B 33. C
II.
34. F 35. F 36. T 37. F 38. T
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ĐỀ SỐ 2
UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH
TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN TRÃI
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
KIỂM TRA CUỐI KÌ II
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 6
Thời gian: 60 phút (không tính thời gian phát đề)
I. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS (2.0 pts)
Task 1. Choose the word which has a different sound in the part underlined. (0,4 pts)
1. A. energy B. rent C. talent D. contest
2. A. after B. star C. palace D. market
Task 2. Choose the best option A, B, C or D. (1.6 pts)
1. Trung play basketball yesterday.
A. didn’t B. doesn’t C. wasn’t D. isn’t
2. do you like watching comedies? – Because I find them funny.
A. What B. Which C. How D. Why
3. I like this gym. equipment here is new and cool.
A. An B. A C. The D. ø
4. My sister bought a new motorbike last week. motorbike is black.
A. Her B. She’s C. She D. Hers
5. robots might help mothers to look after children.
A. Old B. Funny C. Hi-tech D. New
6. According to the , there will be rain.
A. game show B. TV series C. weather forecast D. animal pragramme
7. Big Ben is the most famous in England.
A. river B. waterfall C. city D. tower
8. Nam: What an interesting programme it is! Hoa: .
A. Yes. It is my favourite programme. B. Sorry, I don’t have free time.
C. I go cycling with my father D. No, I don’t.
II. READING (2.0 pts)
Task 1. Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. (1.0 pt)
enjoy have contact on rooms
I have a dream of having my own flat. It will be (11) the centre of the city. There will be four
(12) in it: a living room, a bedroom, a bathroom and a kitchen. I’ll (13) a big TV and a
DVD player in my bedroom. They’ll help me to relax and (14) life. I’ll have a laptop to (15)
with my friends. My flat will be on the top floor and there won’t have any neighbors, so It’ll be OK
to play loud music.
Task 2. Read the passages carefully. Choose the best answer A, B or C to each of the questions. (1.0 pt)
Page 8
Steve, 13 I love TV. The first thing I do when I wake up is to switch it on. My favourite
channel is the Cartoon Network. I watch TV three or four hours a day. My parents
think it is too much and they are always telling me to study, read a little or do a
sport. But TV is my favourite hobby. I’m addicted to my favourite progammes.
Kate, 14 I know most teens don’t like watching the news, but I do. I like to know what is
happening around our world. I also enjoy documentaries, especially about wildlife.
I’m very curious about the way animals live and how to preserve their habitats. I
also enjoy watching live shows and films, mostly comedies and thrillers. I watch
TV two or three hours a day.
Write (✔) T (True) or F (False). (0.4 pt)
16. Steve is thirty years old.
17. Kate enjoys watching the news.
Answer the questions. (0.6 pt)
18. Is Cartoon Network Steve’s favorite channel?
_______________________________________
19. What kind of films does Kate enjoy watching?
_______________________________________
20. How many hours a day does Kate watch TV?
_______________________________________
III. WRITING (2.0 pts)
Task 1. Choose the underlined part( A, B, C or D) that needs correction. (0,4 pt):
21. When are you going to spend your vacation? – In Nha Trang
A B C D
22. We didn’t visit the Opera House because we don’t have enough time.
A B C D
Task 2. Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. (0.8pt)
23. Peter can speak Spanish and French. He can’t write them. (but)
=> Peter
24. Nam’s brother never has an accident because he is very careful. (so)
=> Nam’s brother is
25. In the future, people will probably go on holiday to the moon. (might)
=> In the future, people
26. If it isn’t sunny tomorrow. We don’t go to the beach. (If)
=> If
Task 3. Use the given words to make meaningful sentences (0.8pt)
27. I / take part / chess contest / school / last week / and / win / second prize.
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_____________________________________________________________
28. If/ you/ take/ shower/ instead of/ bath/, you/ save/ lot of/ water.
_____________________________________________________________
IV. LISTENING (2.0 pts)
Task 1: Listen to John and Kate talking a place where they live then choose the best answer A, B, C or
D.(1pt)
29. New York has got many high buildings, banks, supermarkets and.
A. post office B. museums C. parks D. stores
30. It’s very in New York city
A. noisy B. peaceful C. boring D. happy
31. Kate is than John
A. younger B. shorter C. taller D. older
32. She lives in a in an area away from Canberra, Australia.
A. town B. village C. villa D. city
33. She prefers to live in the countryside because the air is there
A. polluted B. dirty C. fresh D. cleaner
Task 2: Listen and write T (True) or F (False). (1pt)
34. Mi is from class 6A.
35. Mi thinks they can recycle things in the bins.
36. At book fairs, students can exchange their old books.
37. Nam thinks students will save money if they go to school by bus.
38. Students can exchange their used water bottles at uniform fairs.
................................................................. (The end) ...................................................................
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HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
I. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0,2 điểm.
1. C 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. C
6. A 7. C 8. C 9. D 10. A
II.
Task 1. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0,2 điểm.
11. in 12. rooms 13. have 14. enjoy 15. contact
Task 2. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0,2 điểm.
16. F 17. T
18. Yes,(it is)
19. Comedies and thrillers.
20. Two or three hours a day.
III.
Task 1. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0,2 điểm.
21. D 22. C
Task 2. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0,2 điểm.
23. Peter can speak Spanish and French, but he can’t write them.
24. Nam’s brother is very careful, so he never has an accident.
25. In the future, people might go on holiday to the moon.
26. If it isn’t sunny tomorrow, we won’t go to the beach.
Task 3. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0,4 điểm.
27. I took part in the chess contest at school last week and (I) won the second prize.
28. If you take a shower instead of a bath, you will save a lot of water.
* Trong phần viết, tùy theo mức độ đạt được của bài làm, giáo viên quyết định điểm cho phù hợp.
IV. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0,2 điểm.
29. D 30. A 31. D 32. B 33. C
34. T 35. F 36. T 37. F 38. F
Page 11
ĐỀ SỐ 3
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
BẮC NINH
ĐỂ CHÍNH THỨC
ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KỲ I
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 6
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
A. LISTENING (1.6 pts)
Part I. You are going to hear about a house for rent. Listen and fill in each gap with no MORE THAN
TWO WORDS. You will listen twice. (0.8 pts)
1. This house by the sea is perfect for your ………. holiday.
2. There are ………. and two bathrooms.
3. The ………. has two armchairs, a sofa and a television.
4. You can ………… to the post office, the supermarket and the library.
Part II. Listen to the interviews. Decide if the following statements are true (T) or false (F). You will
listen twice. (0.8 pts)
1. Charlie often sleeps eight or nine hours every day.
2. Charlie is very lazy and stays on the sofa a lot.
3. Conor is fit at the moment.
4. Fran doesn’t normally eat healthy food.
B. PHONETICS AND USE OF LANGUAGE. (2.4 pts)
I. Find the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest. (0.4 pts)
1. A. character B. change C. channel D. charity
2. A. rubbish B. funny C. reduce D. running
II. Choose the word with the different stress pattern. (0.4 pts)
1. A. picture B. water C. exam D. paper
2. A. reduce B. reuse C. village D. recycle
III. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences. (1.2 pts)
1. It's very ……….. to swim there. The water is heavily polluted.
A. safe B. unsafe C. unpopular D. easy
2. ………. Sun keeps …… Earth warm.
A. A – the B. The – the C. The – a D. The – an
3. My robot sends and ………….. emails for me.
A. has B. does C. receives D. brings
4. The programme is interesting, …………. it is too long.
A. but B. and C. or D. so
5. I have a computer to ……….. the internet.
A. go B. look at C. visit D. surf
6. If it is rainy next week, we ……….. on a picnic.
A. will go B. go C. won’t go D. should go
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IV. Use the correct tense of the verbs in brackets. (0.4 pts)
1. If the river isn’t dirty, there (be) more fish.
2. I (not see) you at the gym yesterday.
C. READING (2.0 pts).
I. Complete the passage with the words in the box. (1.0 pt)
because think together healthy way
Sports and games are very important in our lives. They help us stay (1) ……… and strong. Playing
sports like football, badminton, and swimming makes us active and happy. Playing chess helps us (2)
……… better. At school, we can play with our friends and learn teamwork. Many students love football (3)
……… it is fun and exciting. Sports also teach us to never give up. After studying hard, playing games is a
good (4) ……… to relax. We should play sports every day to be healthy. Remember, playing is not just fun,
it is also good for our body and mind. Let’s play and enjoy sports (5) ………!
II. Pierre, Anna and Daisy are talking about their holidays. Read the passages and answer the
questions below. (1.0 pt)
Our vacation plans
Pierre: Now I am on vacation in the south of France. Tomorrow, my family are driving to the city of Nice.
If the weather is good, we will walk up a big hill called Mont Baron. If it rains, we will look at the art show
in the Matisse Museum.
Anna: I am on vacation in San Francisco. Yesterday, we went shopping and had dinner at Union Square. It
was so crowded! I’m going to spend today at Golden Gate Park. It is very peaceful. If the weather is bad, I
will go to see the fish at the Aquarium.
Daisy: My family and I are going to Singapore for the weekend. We will visit Singapore Zoo on Saturday.
After that, we will visit Waterfront Promenade. It is a peaceful place to walk and look at the old buildings
and statues. If we have time on Sunday, we will go to a mall.
Questions
1. Where is Pierre now?
2. Which city are Pierre’s family driving to tomorrow?
3. Did Anna go shopping yesterday?
4. What will Anna do if the weather is bad today?
5. How is Waterfront Promenade?
D. WRITING. (2.0 pts)
I. Find out and correct the mistake in each sentence. (0.8 pts)
1. John, you are late. The match starts ten minutes ago.
2. My father is a worker and my mother is the doctor.
II. Rearrange the words/ phrases to make correct sentences. You cannot change the words. (0.4 pts)
1. in/ Will/ hi-tech/ a/in/ house/ the future/ people/ live/ ?
2. an / intelligent/ animal/ A / is / dolphin.
III. Combine each pair of sentences below to make a first conditional sentence. (0.4 pts)
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1. We walk or cycle. We are healthy.
2. You make noise. Your sister doesn’t sleep.
IV. Rewrite the sentences, using the given words. (0.4 pts)
1. The bike in front of her house is mine. (My)
2. They will move to a new apartment, I guess. (might)
E. SPEAKING (2.0 pts)
---------- THE END ----------
Page 14
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
A. LISTENING (1.6 pts)
Part I. You are going to hear about a house for rent. Listen and fill in each gap with no MORE THAN
TWO WORDS. You will listen twice. (0.8 pts) (0.2 pts for each correct answer)
1. summer 2. three bedrooms 3. living room 4. walk
Part II. Listen to the interviews. Decide if the following statements are true (T) or false (F). You will
listen twice. (0.8 pts) (0.2 pts for each correct answer)
1. T 2. F 3. F 4. T
B. PHONETICS AND USE OF LANGUAGE. (2.4 pts)
I. Find the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest. (0.4 pts)
(0.2 pts for each correct answer)
1. A 2. C
II. Choose the word with different stress pattern. (0.4 pts) (0.2 pts for each correct answer)
1. C 2. C
III. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the sentences. (1.2 pts)
(0.2 pts for each correct answer)
1. B 2. B 3. C
4. A 5. D 6. C
IV. Use the correct tense of the verbs in brackets. (0.4 ptS) (0.2 pts for each correct answer)
1. will be 2. didn’t see
C. READING (2.0 pts).
I. Complete the passage with the words in the box. (1.0 pt) (0.2 pts for each correct answer)
1. healthy 2. think 3. because 4. way 5. together
II. Pierre, Anna and Daisy are talking about their holidays. Read the passages and answer the questions
below. (1.0 pt) (0.2 pts for each correct answer)
1. Pierre / He is on vacation in the south of France.
2. (They are driving to) the city of Nice.
3. Yes, she did.
4. She will go to see the fish at the Aquarium.
5. It is a peaceful place to walk and look at the old buildings and statues.
D. WRITING. (2.0 pts)
I. Find out and correct the mistake in each sentence. (0.8 pts)
(0.2 pts for each correct answer)
1. starts started 2. the doctor a doctor
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II. Rearrange the words/ phrases to make correct sentences. You can not change the words. (0.6 pts)
(0.2 pts for each correct answer)
1. Will people live in a hi-tech house in the future?
2. A dolphin is an intelligent animal.
III. Combine each pair of sentences below to make a first conditional sentence. (0.4 pts) (0.2 pts for
each correct answer)
1. If we walk or cycle, we will be healthy.
2. If you make noise, your sister won’t sleep.
IV. Rewrite the sentences, using the given words. (0.4 pts)
(0.2 pts for each correct answer)
1. My bike is in front of her house.
2. They might move to a new apartment.
E. SPEAKING (2.0pts)
---------- THE END ----------
Tapescript for LISTENING
PART 1: Summer House by the Sea. This beautiful house is perfect for your summer holiday.
There are three bedrooms and two bathrooms. The kitchen has a new fridge and cooker and a big table
with six chairs, dinner for six. There's a big living room with two armchairs, a sofa and
a television. There's a garden behind the house, great for kids and all the shops are near the house.
You can walk to the post office, the supermarket, fresh fish, yum, the cinema, the
museum and the library. And the water is a hundred meters from your front door. Price?
900 euros per week.
PART 2: Interviewer: So, Charlie, are you fit and healthy?
Charlie: Yes. I think I’m quite fit and healthy.
Interviewer: So, do you think you’re active or lazy?
Charlie: Uhm, I’m quite active.
Interviewer: Okay. How many hours do you usually sleep?
Charlie: Normally eight or nine every day.
Interviewer: Okay. And are you lazy at the weekends?
Charlie: No, not really. I don’t like staying in bed.
Interviewer: Do you prefer sitting on the sofa or going out?
Charlie: I like playing video games. I also like going out and doing sports. I’m not a couch potato.
Interviewer: Okay.
2. Interviewer: Conor, are you fit and healthy?
Conor: Healthy? Yes, but not very fit at the moment?
Interviewer: Why that?
Conor: I’m studying for exams. And I’m really tired.
Interviewer: How many hours do you usually sleep?
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